Often Protestants point to verse 63: ..the flesh is of no avail… and claim that this is where Jesus explained Himself to be speaking symbolically. This claim doesn’t hold up for at least 3 reasons.
Ave Maria!
Love uCATHOLIC?
Get our inspiring content delivered to your inbox every morning - FREE!
Thank you for that on verse 63…I’m gonna use that one to be sure.
God Bless.
Great Apologetics. I will surely use those Verses as well.
God Bless. Ave Maria,
Alvin
Thank you very much!
Ave Maria, brother !
It is puzzling that we humans place so much value in our desire to interpret scripture to suite our set of circumstances rather than the much easier path of faith in Truth.
Thank you for your work Brother. However I have a quesiton. What specifically indicates that the discussion in verses 60 – 63 and following took place at a later time? I can accept that the Eucharistic discourse ended in verse 59 (though I think there is room for debate about that too), but I don’t see anything in the text that suggests the following verses take place at a later time. It seems to me they could have easily taken place in the synagogue as well. After all it says, “Many of his disciples, WHEN THEY HEARD IT…” not, “Later after hearing it they said…” It seems to indicate they reacted immediately.